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Updated: May 5, 2025
Is Boyet's conclusion that "Navar is affected," more a means of telling the Audience what is about to happen, than comment on what is to be seen? Or is it of use to show the Actor of the King's part how he must bear himself? How does it fit with the name and scheme of the Play that Boyet who thinks the King has already fallen in love should be called Cupid's grandfather?
Why does the Princess discount Boyet's remarks and accuse him of joking? Does she give any clew to her own feelings? Why is it in keeping with the Play that Berowne should be the first of the Lords to be foresworn? In making Armado the keeper of Costard, the Clown's breaking of the vow has already been satirized by the King's own act.
Show what may be gathered from their speeches? What does the Princess gather from them? The King does not invite the Princess to his Court, and declares he will not violate his vow. Nevertheless he does do so. In what respect? Boyet's observation of him goes still farther. What is this? And how does it seem to be justified?
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